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forum
Culpability
A driver overtakes a cyclist in the wet, and then brakes. Cyclist unable to brake as hard goes into the back of the car, causing a dent. Cyclist uninjured - who's liable?
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3 comments
No real sign of aggression, just a pretty hard stop by the look of things. Disc brakes on the bike, so a good stopping capability, but the wet and spray will have had an effect.
Did the driver get ahead by a reasonable 'stopping distance for a bike' between them before pulling back in ?
Was his braking intentional towards the cyclist ? ie previous aggro
Did the cyclist brake to the best of his abililty ?
Did the bike have adequate brakes - not 1970s chrome rims with hard rubber blocks ?
They would go for 100 yards before drying out enough to begin to stop.
'Raleigh Raincheck' built a leather 'squeegee' strip into the blocks.
http://player.bfi.org.uk/film/watch-raleigh-raincheck-advert-1976/
£1 ! Not likely.
A point of clarification - who's liable for the dent?