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A motorbiking friend posted this on facebook. Is it fair to assume it applies to non motorised bikes?
http://www.motorbikestoday.com/news/Articles/filtering_law.htm

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farrell [1950 posts] 3 years ago
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That only applies to motorcyclists.

If a car pulls out of a queue of traffic, drives across the pavement, through the front wall of someones house, runs them over in their own living room, reverses back over them, gets out of the car and starts urinating on the prone, dead body and it comes to light that the dead body once rode a push-bike then the motorist can be absolved of any blame.

With a good solicitor, or usually just the right judge, the driver of the car would probably be able to claim damages and compensation for the incident too.

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Actium [38 posts] 3 years ago
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Thanks for that - I burst out laughing when reading this, now everyone at work thinks I'm deranged.

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farrell [1950 posts] 3 years ago
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The gallows humour of cyclists is frightening at times.

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cat1commuter [1421 posts] 3 years ago
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Yes, lane splitting by both cyclists and motorcyclists appears to be condoned by the current highway code. Advice for motorists:

151 In slow-moving traffic. You should

• be aware of cyclists and motorcyclists who may be passing on either side

See "LANE SPLITTING" on this page: http://www.bikehub.co.uk/featured-articles/cycling-and-the-law/

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Actium [38 posts] 3 years ago
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I think there may be a difference between "sanctioned by the Highway Code" and being supported by case-law. I think the Motorcycle case does apply here.

I do have first hand experience of a car doing a sudden U-Turn when in stationary queing traffic while I was "lane-splitting" on his right - bang! He was very apologetic and I only had a grazed knee as a result, but it took me a while to calm down  14 (We did shake hands later)